i've noticed that, when a 'programmer' makes an offer on a project, and this offer is accepted by the client, the programmer has to accept again.
This second acceptance from the programmer seems a bit unnecessary, but not really an issue.
However, apparently the programmer has to pay a fee (in % to the project offer) to be able to accept the project. Here's where it doesn't make sense to me? Is this meant to be so or a logic mismatch?
Why should the programmer has to pay for a job a client asks? Wouldn't it be more justified the other way around? ('buyer' has to have credit before assigning a job, well at least if the programmer requires a escrow release on advance)
Anyway, i'll try to dig into the complete source logic, and change it if possible. Looks like i'll have to look into a lot more code..
Kind rgds,
Tino
